READING TIME: 2-3 MINUTES
March 17, 2020
What’s the meaning of “husband of one wife” in 1 Timothy 3:2?
1 Timothy 3:2: “An overseer, then, must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, prudent, respectable, hospitable, able to teach” (NASB).
The Greek of 1 Timothy 3:2 says “a one-woman (a type of/kind of) man.” Interestingly, a similar phrase is used in 1 Tim 5:9; a widow must be a “one-husband wife”). It is noteworthy that Paul didn’t write, “he cannot have been previously married” or “he cannot have been divorced.” What he did say is that he must be a one-wife husband or a one-woman type of man. Paul was concerned with one’s character when a man is being considered for this high office; Paul was not calling into review such a person’s pre-conversion life.
It seems to me (for what it’s worth) that the issue here is sexual purity, not marital status. “a one-woman man” is one who is completely devoted to his wife and who maintains sexual purity in thought and deed.
Another good point is the other qualifications are “character traits,” so it’s likely this one also is (leading to the sexual faithfulness view).
The absence of the definite article gives more strength to the sexual faithfulness view (character is in view).
The word “woman” in Greek is a “genitive” case. The type of genitive in 3:2 is probably a genitive of quality (a reference to a moral character trait). So, if this is the case, the entire expression in Greek is to explain what kind, or to quality the noun (“man”) is by attributing to him this character.
Hellenistic Greek did not have a word to express the concept of faithfulness in marriage. So, Paul was in a position where he had to invent either a word or an idiomatic expression (which he did in 1 Tim 3:2).
A good translation of this phrase in 3:2 would be a “sexually pure man.”
My friend Andy Woods’s conclusion in his journal article on this expression in 1 Tim 3:2, is excellent:
After examining the merits and deficiencies of each approach, it was concluded
that the best interpretation is to translate the phrase “a one-woman man” and to view the phrase as requiring fidelity in the character of a candidate for the office of elder. Thus, this phrase does not deal with the candidate’s legal married status but rather pertains to fidelity as part of the candidate’s character at the time he is considered for the office. Although it is acceptable for the church to examine the candidate’s past sins to ascertain the content of his character, it is inappropriate for the church to use 1 Timothy 3:2 as a basis of holding a candidate’s past sins against him in isolation of his current character. The church can best maintain balance in this area by following Paul’s intent behind 1 Timothy 3:2 rather than by adding to what Paul said even for the noble purpose of maintaining high standards for church leadership.
Sources Used
Glasscock, Ed. “‘The Husband of One Wife’ Requirement in 1 Timothy 3:2.” Bibliotheca Sacra 140:559 (July-September 1983):244-58.
Mounce, William. “1 Tim 3:2—Can an elder be divorced? (Monday with Mounce 28).”